strayer bus309 all weeks quizes latest 2015 june

| June 1, 2016

Question
quiz 1

Question 1

Which of the following statements is true?

a) Ethical relativists believe morality is grounded in religion.

b) Moral guidelines provided by religions are often general and ambiguous.

c) Moral relativists believe moral standards are absolute.

d) Immoral actions are always illegal.

Question 2

Which of the following is tr

a) Sound arguments always have true conclusions.

b) Sound arguments are always invalid.

c) Sound arguments sometimes contain false premises.

d) Sound arguments have counterexamples.

Question 3

Which of the following is an accurate statement?

a) There is a complete list of adequacy criteria for moral judgments that philosophers all agree on.

b) Professional codes are the rules that are supposed to govern the conduct of members of a given profession.

c) Professional codes of ethics provide a complete and reliable guide to one’s moral obligations.

d) People who are exclusively concerned with their own interests tend to have happier and more satisfying lives than those whose desires extend beyond themselves.

Question 4

Which of the following best defines diffusion of responsibility?

a) What happens when the pressure to maintain harmony and avoid conflict within a group inhibits or hampers the abilities of those in the group to realistically appraise situations and make coherent, moral decisions.

b) What happens when responsibility is spread across a large group and individuals do not feel personally responsible for the consequences of their actions.

c) What happens when corporations encourage employees to behave with integrity.

d) none of the above

Question 5

Consider the following argument:

All dogs are canines.

Fido is a dog.

Therefore, Fido is a canine

Which of the following is true of this argument?

a) This argument is invalid.

b) This argument is sound.

c) This argument is moral.

d) This is not an argument.

Question 6

Which of the following best defines ethical relativism?

a) Right and wrong are determined by what God decrees.

b) There are no right or wrong actions.

c) Morality is not absolute, but varies from culture to culture.

d) What is moral is determined by religious leaders.

Question 7

Self-interested actions are best defined as ones that:

a) Benefit others.

b) Satisfy one’s own desires.

c) Are immoral.

d) Are legal.

Question 8

Which of the following can pressure otherwise moral people to behave immorally at work?

a) Corporate goals that encourage employees to cut corners

b) The profit motive

c) Loyalty to the company

d) All of the above

Question 9

Our relationship with the law and morality is best described by which of the following?

a) To a significant extent, law codifies a society’s customs, norms, and moral values.

b) The law is a completely adequate guide to the moral standards that we should follow.

c) The law makes all immoral conduct illegal.

d) Violating the law is always immoral.

Question 10

Which of the following characteristics distinguishes moral standards from other sorts of standards?

a) Moral standards are purely optional.

b) Moral standards take priority over other standards, including self­-interest.

c) Moral standards cannot be justified by reasons.

d) Moral standards must be set or validated by some authoritative body.

Question 11

The divine command theory implies that:

a) God commands us to do whatever our reason tells us is right.

b) God forbids stealing because stealing is wrong.

c) God leaves right and wrong up to us.

d) Stealing is wrong only because God commands us not to steal.

Question 12

Which of the following is true?

a) All ethicists agree that people should do what is in their own self-interest.

b) All ethicists agree that the right moral thing to do depends on what a person intends when he or she acts.

c) All ethicists agree that the right moral thing to do depends entirely on the outcome of an action.

d) None of the above

Question 13

Which of the following is not true of valid arguments?

a) Valid arguments always contain true premises.

b) Valid arguments contain at least one premise.

c) Valid arguments contain a conclusion.

d) The conclusion in a valid argument follows from its premises.

Question 14

Which of the following make the effects of diffusion of responsibility more likely to occur?

a) When individuals feel the group’s achievements do not reflect on them personally.

b) When individuals in a hierarchy feel they are simply following orders.

c) When individuals feel they aren’t able to make autonomous decisions at work.

d) All of the above

Question 15

Which of the following best describes the paradox of hedonism?

a) People who act only in their own interests are typically the happiest people.

b) It actually isn’t in anyone’s best interest to act only in ways that are self-interested, because people who only care about their own happiness will generally be less happy than those who care about others.

c) When someone cares about the happiness of others, then no one cares about what will make that person happy.

d) Being happy involves ignoring the wants and needs of others.

quiz 3

Question 1

2 out of 2 points

Correct

Greater potential savings would result from a (n):

Question 2

2 out of 2 points

Correct

The most important savings surplus unit in the economy is:

Question 3

2 out of 2 points

Correct

Which of the following is an example of indirect financing?

Question 4

0 out of 2 points

Incorrect

Which of the following instruments generates the largest amount of funds annually in the credit markets?

Question 5

2 out of 2 points

Correct

A business loan to Joe’s Hardware Store by a bank represents which of the following?

Question 6

0 out of 2 points

Incorrect

A business deposit in a commercial bank represents:

Question 7

2 out of 2 points

Correct

Which one the following four basic economic units consistently represents a savings surplus unit?

Question 8

2 out of 2 points

Correct

A saver who chooses securities as a savings medium and desires maximum safety of principal buys:

Question 9

2 out of 2 points

Correct

Which of the following categories is not considered to be one of the four basic economic units in the U.S. financial system?

Question 10

0 out of 2 points

Incorrect

What type of investment occurs when claims to wealth in the form of real assets are created or acquired?

Question 11

2 out of 2 points

Correct

When referring to an “upward sloping” yield curve, interest rates:

Question 12

2 out of 2 points

Correct

______________ is the tendency of prices, aided by union-corporation contracts, to rise during economic expansions and resist declines during recessions.

Question 13

0 out of 2 points

Incorrect

When referring to a “downward sloping” yield curve:

Question 14

2 out of 2 points

Correct

The basic sources of loanable funds are:

Question 15

2 out of 2 points

Correct

The yield curve or the term structure of interest rates is typically downward sloping when:

Question 16

2 out of 2 points

Correct

If the money supply and total demand increase faster than output, prices will:

Question 17

2 out of 2 points

Correct

The loanable funds theory used to explain the level of interest rates holds that interest rates are a function of the supply of:

Question 18

2 out of 2 points

Correct

______________ occurs during economic expansions when demand for goods and services is greater than supply.

Question 19

2 out of 2 points

Correct

The basic motives for holding money rather than investments are the:

Question 20

2 out of 2 points

Correct

A basic source of loanable funds is:

quiz 4

Question 1

2 out of 2 points

Correct

A famous athlete is awarded a $9 million contract that stipulates equal payments to be made monthly over a period of five years. To determine what such a contract is worth today, you would need to use:

Question 2

2 out of 2 points

Correct

The basic future and present value equations contain four variables. Which one of the following is not included?

Question 3

2 out of 2 points

Correct

A loan that is repaid in equal payments over a specified time period is referred to as a (n):

Question 4

2 out of 2 points

Correct

The present value of a $20,000 perpetuity at a 7 percent discount rate is

Question 5

2 out of 2 points

Correct

When the amount earned on a deposit has become part of the principal at the end of a specified time period the concept is called

Question 6

0 out of 2 points

Incorrect

If the interest rate is zero, the future value interest factor equals ________.

Question 7

2 out of 2 points

Correct

If the stated or nominal interest rate is 10 percent and the inflation rate is 5 percent, the differential compounding rate would be ________ percent

Question 8

2 out of 2 points

Correct

For positive interest rates, the future value interest factor is

Question 9

2 out of 2 points

Correct

When compounding more than once a year, the true opportunity costs measure of the interest rate is indicated by the:

Question 10

2 out of 2 points

Correct

A series of equal payments or receipts that occur at the beginning of each of a number of time periods is referred to as:

quiz 7

Question 1

A test is reliable if:

a) It successfully measures what it is supposed to.

b) A candidate would get similar results if he or she took the test multiple times.

c) It results in discrimination against people who belong to certain demographic groups.

d) It provides no information about the personality of the test taker.

Question 2

When disciplining or discharging an employee with just cause, the burden of proof is on the:

a) Employee

b) Employer

c) Employee handbook

d) There is no burden of proof when an employee is disciplined or discharged with just cause.

Question 3

When screening job applicants, businesses often take which of the following into consideration?

a) Work experience

b) Educational background

c) Personality traits

d) All of the above

Question 4

A test is valid if:

Wrong Answera) It successfully measures what it is supposed to.

b) A candidate would get similar results if he or she took the test multiple times.

c) It results in discrimination against people who belong to certain demographic groups.

d) It provides no information about the personality of the test taker.

Question 5

Fair personnel policies and decisions must be based on criteria that are clear, job related, and:

a) partial toward friends.

b) equally applied.

c) ignore personality.

d) minimize nepotism.

Question 6

Which of the following best defines inbreeding?

a) Privileging or promoting employees based on how long they’ve been on a job or with a company.

b) The practice of promoting exclusively from within the firm.

c) The practice of showing favoritism to relatives and close friends.

d) None of the above

Question 7

The federal government requires that business pay employees:

a) Minimum wage

b) A living wage

c) For sick days

d) There are no federal requirements for wages.

Question 8

Businesses should not discriminate against job applications because of:

Wrong Answera) Employment gaps

b) Work experience

c) Educational background

d) Bona fide occupational qualifications

Question 9

Which of the following is an argument someone might make to highlight the problems that can arise when employees are promoted on the basis of inbreeding?

a) Inbreeding encourages employees to work as hard as possible.

b) Inbreeding can cause managers to ignore more qualified applicants who work outside the firm.

c) Inbreeding encourages employees to behave loyally to the firm.

d) None of the above

Question 10

Employees working under an employment-at-will contract are:

a) Not entitled to any due process protection under the law.

b) Entitled to due process protection under the law.

c) Legally protected from ungrounded termination.

d) None of the above

Question 11

Which of the following statements is false of bona fide occupational qualifications?

a) There are some gendered bona fide occupational qualifications.

Wrong Answerb) There are some racial bona fide occupational qualifications.

c) There are bona fide occupational qualifications for cases of authenticity.

d) There are bona fide occupational qualifications for cases of modesty.

Question 12

Unions employ two kinds of boycotts to enforce their demands. These two kinds of boycotts are:

a) positive and negative.

b) corporate and private.

c) active and passive.

d) primary and secondary.

Question 13

Which of the following best defines due process?

a) States that employees have the right to leave a company at any time and for any reason.

b) Requires that organizations use fair procedures to discipline or discharge employees.

c) Requires that reasons for discipline or discharge deal directly with job performance.

d) States that employers have a right to terminate an employee’s position at any time and for any reason.

Question 14

In the last 20 years, union membership has been:

a) Stagnant

b) Increasing

c) Declining

d) Unmeasured

Question 15

Which of the following can call into question the fairness of promotions?

a) Seniority

b) Inbreeding

c) Nepotism

d) All of the above

quiz 10

Question 1

Evidence suggests that when people choose to ignore sexual harassment:

a) It usually continues or gets worse.

b) It usually goes away on its own.

c) It leads to the demise of the company as a whole.

d) It increases employee morale.

Question 2

Which of the following best defines job discrimination?

a) Procedures and policies that lead to adverse decisions regarding an employee or a job applicant based on his or her membership in a certain group.

b) Quotas should be instituted to ensure the proportional representation of women and minorities.

c) Programs should be instituted to increase the representation of minorities and women in workplaces where they are underrepresented.

d) Men and women should be paid equally for work that requires comparable skills and responsibilities.

Question 3

Which of the following Supreme Court cases determined that it is illegal to discriminate based on disability status?

a) Johnson v. Transportation Agency

b) Novartis Case

c) Americans With Disabilities Act

d) Civil Rights Act

Question 4

Which of the following best defines quid-pro-quo harassment?

a) Harassment that occurs when a supervisor makes an employee’s employment opportunities conditional on the employee’s entering into a sexual relationship with, or granting sexual favors to, the supervisor.

b) Harassment that occurs when behaviors, words, or visual images of a sexual nature that are distressing to workers (almost always, but not exclusively, women) and that interfere with their ability to perform on the job, even when they are not attempts to pressure workers for sexual favors.

c) Discrimination by a superior when that superior is engaged in sexual relations not with those discriminated against, but with one or more other employees.

d) None of the above

Question 5

Which of the following best defines comparable worth?

a) Procedures and policies can lead to adverse decisions regarding an employee or a job applicant based on his or her membership in a certain group.

b) Quotas should be instituted to ensure the proportional representation of women and minorities.

c) Programs should be instituted to increase the representation of minorities and women in workplaces where they are underrepresented.

d) Men and women should be paid equally for work that requires comparable skills and responsibilities.

Question 6

Which of the following statements is true?

a) Companies can be held legally liable for harassing behavior by their employees only if they are aware of it.

b) Companies can be held legally liable for harassing behavior by their employees even if they are not aware of it.

c) Companies can never be held legally liable for harassing behavior by their employees.

d) None of the above

Question 7

Job discrimination can occur on:

a) A personal level

b) An institutional level

c) None of the above

d) Both A and B

Question 8

Which of the following is true?

a) Institutional discrimination can occur even when institutional policies seem to be neutral.

b) It is unclear how pervasive the problem of job discrimination is in the United States.

c) It is unclear how pervasive the problem of job discrimination is in the United States.

d) All of the above

Question 9

What quality is more important in predicting who gets fired than job-performance ratings or even prior disciplinary history?

a) Race

b) Sexual orientation

c) Age

d) Gender

Question 10

An office where lewd comments, jokes, and images make some individuals feel uncomfortable and unable to do their work has a problem with:

a) Quid-pro-quo harassment

b) Sexual favoritism

c) Hostile-work-environment harassment

d) None of the above

Question 11

Which of the following is an argument for affirmative action programs?

a) Affirmative action is necessary to break the cycle that keeps minorities and women locked into low-paying, low-prestige jobs.

b) Nondiscrimination will achieve our social goals; stronger affirmative action is unnecessary.

c) Affirmative action itself violates the principle of equality.

d) Affirmative action injures white men and infringes their rights.

Question 12

Which of the following Supreme Court cases determined that it is illegal to discriminate based on race, color, sex, religion, or national origin?

a) Johnson v. Transportation Agency

b) Novartis Case

c) Americans With Disabilities Act

d) Civil Rights Act

Question 13

Which of the following is true of affirmative action programs?

a) Affirmative action programs make use of quotas to make sure women and minorities are represented in the workplace.

b) Affirmative action programs presume that race or gender-conscious measures are necessary to overcome discriminatory practices.

c) Affirmative action programs face no major criticisms.

d) None of the above

Question 14

Which of the following is an example of a so-called “pink-collar” job?

a) CEO

b) Secretary

c) Police officer

d) Athlete

Question 15

Which of the following Supreme Court cases determined that gender may be used as a positive factor when making promotions among qualified candidates for jobs in which women are underrepresented?

a) Johnson v. Transportation Agency

b) Novartis Case

c) Americans With Disabilities Act

d) Civil Rights Act

quiz 11

here is no minimum passing score for this assessment.

Question 1

A firm that has become a “neighbor of choice” builds and sustains ________ within the community.

• a) Commitment

• b) Trust

• c) Educational opportunities

• d) Political clout

Question 2

According to utilitarianism:

• a) An action is morally right if it results in the greatest amount of good for the greatest amount of people affected by the action.

• b) An action is morally right if it results in the greatest amount of good possible in the given situation.

• c) If you behave morally, you are serving the community.

• d) An action is morally right if it results in the least amount of negativity possible.

Question 3

Morality is best defined as:

• a) What is considered as correct within a society.

• b) Making the right decision’s where there is a chance to do wrong.

• c) Defining what is right and wrong for an individual or a community.

• d) Where individuals have a conscious choice to make a right and ethical decision.

Question 4

Most companies begin the process of establishing organizational ethics programs by developing:

• a) Ethics training programs

• b) Codes of conduct

• c) Ethics enforcement mechanisms

• d) Hidden agendas

Question 5

Stakeholders are considered more important to an organization when:

• a) They can make use of their power on the organization.

• b) They do not emphasize the urgency of their issues.

• c) Their issues are not legitimate.

• d) They can express themselves articulately.

Question 6

The ability to interpret and adapt successfully to different national, organizational, and professional cultures is called:

• a) National competitiveness

• b) Global development

• c) Cultural intelligence

• d) Stakeholder sensitivity

Question 7

The absolutist/cognitive perspective divides into:

• a) Ethical relativism/Non-relativism

• b) Cognitivism/Non-cognitivism

• c) Consequentialists/Non-consequentialists

• d) External/Internal

Question 8

The area where ethics and law overlap is called:

• a) Yellow area

• b) White area

• c) Black area

• d) Grey area

Question 9

The community relations function should develop community mission statements, assess opportunities, and identify priorities for the types of contributions a business will make by:

• a) Consistently privileging one stakeholder group.

• b) Considering only internal constituents.

• c) Remaining independent of all stakeholder groups.

• d) Cooperating with various internal and external constituents.

Question 10

The first step in the auditing process should be to secure the commitment of:

• a) employees

• b) top executives and directors

• c) stockholders

• d) customers

Question 11

The ________ dimension of social responsibility refers to a business’s societal contribution of time, money, and other resources.

• a) ethical

• b) philanthropic

• c) volunteerism

• d) strategic

Question 12

To be successful, business ethics training programs need to:

• a) Focus on personal opinions of employees.

• b) Be limited to upper executives.

• c) Educate employees on formal ethical frameworks and models of ethical decision making.

• d) Promote the use of emotions in making tough ethical decisions.

Question 13

Virtue ethics:

• a) Assumes good businesses will make good decisions.

• b) Assumes good government good ethical practices on their businesses.

• c) Assumes good persons will make good decisions and personal qualities affect decisions.

• d) Assumes good persons will make good decisions but it has nothing to do with personal qualities.

Question 14

What are ethical theories?

• a) Ethical theories are conduct that should be followed in order to have good ethical practice.

• b) Ethical theories are the rules and principles that determine right and wrong for any given situation.

• c) Ethical theories are ancient hypotheses on how to create good business practice.

• d) Ethical theories give guidelines on how to achieve a good corporate image.

Question 15

What is business ethics?

• a) The study of business situations, activities, and decisions where issues of right and wrong are addressed.

• b) Defined as decisions organizations make on issues that could be considered right or wrong.

• c) Ethics that can be applied to an organization’s practices.

• d) Ethical processes businesses use in order to achieve a good ethical standard.

Question 16

What type of justice exists if employees are being open, honest, and truthful in their communications at work?

• a) Procedural

• b) Distributive

• c) Ethical

• d) Interactional

Question 17

Which is NOT a reason a business engages in business ethics?

• a) To recover a company’s image after a notorious business scandal.

• b) To avoid the loss of a good corporate image or being sued for misconduct.

• c) To enhance global relationships.

• d) To act with real commitment.

Question 18

Which is NOT a reason why business ethics is important?

• a) Stakeholders increasingly demand ethical behavior.

• b) Continued occurrence of ethical infractions shows it is needed.

• c) Ethical companies have been found to be performers that are more effective.

• d) Ethical companies are more likely to achieve government funding and local funds.

Question 19

Which of the following are considered ethics of justice?

• a) Innocent justice, guilty justice, intuitional justice

• b) Retributive justice, processes justice, compliant justice

• c) Innocent justice, fraudulent justice, negligent justice

• d) retributive justice, procedural justice, distributive justice

Question 20

Which of the following are Plato’s Virtues?

• a) Wisdom, courage, self-control, and justice

• b) Confidence, motivation, and control

• c) Happiness, goodness, and love

• d) Wisdom, confidence, happiness, and justice

Question 21

Which of the following is a problem presented by ethics audits?

• a) They may be used to reallocate resources.

• b) They identify practices that need improvement.

• c) Selecting auditors may be difficult.

• d) They may pinpoint problems with stakeholder relationships.

Question 22

Which of the following is NOT a driver of responsible competitiveness?

• a) Policy drivers

• b) Development drivers

• c) Business action

• d) Social enablers

Question 23

Which of the following is NOT one of the primary elements of a strong organizational compliance program?

• a) A written code of conduct

• b) An ethics officer

• c) Significant financial expenditures

• d) A formal ethics training program

Question 24

Which of the following is the best definition for “ethical”?

• a) Global, strict, and absolute rules on right and wrong according to ethical conduct.

• b) Claims morality is context dependent and subjective there are no universal right and wrongs that can be rationally determined.

• c) Right and wrong is objective and determined by the organizations culture.

• d) Claims there are eternal, universally applicable moral principles. Right and wrong are objective qualities.

Question 25

______________ are standards of behavior that groups expect of their members.

• a) Codes of conduct

• b) Group values

• c) Group norms

• d) Organizational norms

quiz 5

Question 1

Which of the following do corporations NOT fall under?

a) For-profit

b) Nonprofit

c) Privately owned

d) Publicly owned

e) Corporations can fall under all of the above.

Question 2

Which of the following statements is a criticism of capitalism?

a) Competition in the market can result in poor product quality.

b) Capitalism incentivizes the wealthy to outsource labor and exploit the poor.

c) Capitalism, because it is governed by merit, provides opportunities for social mobility.

d) All of the above

Question 3

Which of the following economic systems supports the natural right to own and oversee property?

a) Socialism

b) Utilitarianism

c) Libertarianism

d) Capitalism

Question 4

Which of the following is an accurate statement about socialism?

a) It encourages private ownership and rewards individuals based on merit and success.

b) It is built on the idea of free market and property rights.

c) It ignores the value of personal effort.

d) It is characterized by public ownership of property and a planned economy.

Question 5

A ________ corporation consists of investors who own all of the outstanding shares, whereas a ________ corporation has stock which may be traded among the general public.

a) For-profit; nonprofit

b) Capitalist; socialist

c) Public; private

d) Private; public

Question 6

Manufacturing was once at the center of the American economy. Roughly, what is the current percentage of the American workforce employed in manufacturing?

a) 40 percent

b) 25 percent

c) 10 percent

d) 5 percent

Question 7

A company that is vertically integrated:

a) Exists in a high rise building

b) Adopts different practices for each aspect of the business

c) Makes nearly all the crucial parts of what it sells

d) All of the above

Question 8

A publicly held company:

a) Is owned by less than three investors.

b) Allows its stocks to be traded among the general public.

c) Does not partner with other companies.

d) Has a small group of investors who own all the outstanding shares of the corporation.

Question 9

Which of the following statements about corporate moral agency is most accurate?

a) Corporate moral agency forbids the termination of employees who act immorally.

b) Corporate moral agency is rooted in religious principles.

c) Corporate moral agency is the debate to whether a corporation is the kind of entity that can make moral decisions and bear moral responsibility for its actions.

d) None of the above

Question 10

Hollow corporations are:

a) Companies that do little in-house production

b) Companies that have very few executives

c) Companies that reject technological advances

d) All of the above

Question 11

Which of the following best describes the concept of outsourcing?

a) Manufacturers buy parts or whole products from other producers.

b) Manufacturers hire workers from foreign countries.

c) Manufacturers agree to sell products abroad.

d) None of the above

Question 12

Which of the following moral principles underscores capitalism?

a) Integrity

b) Self-interest

c) Self-discipline

d) Service

Question 13

Which of the following statements about the broader view of corporate responsibility is true?

a) Smaller corporations perform better than larger ones.

b) Businesses have a responsibility to consumers, employees, suppliers, and more, as well as to maximizing profit.

c) Businesses see more success if maximizing profit isn’t their only concern.

d) Corporations have a responsibility to their consumers but not to their employees and suppliers.

Question 14

Capitalism dictates that _____________ make the economic decisions.

a) The government

b) Individuals

c) The upper class

d) Business owners

Question 15

Which of the following is an argument that supports the narrow view of corporate responsibility?

a) The “business-can’t-handle-it” argument

b) The greater good argument

c) The “consumer-makes-decisions” argument

d) The self-interest argument

Question 16

Economist Milton Friedman believed as long as a business meets minimal requirements of morality, it is free to single-mindedly pursue profit. Which of the following is Friedman a proponent of?

a) The broader view of corporate responsibility

b) The narrow view of corporate responsibility

c) The socialist view of federal ownership

d) The ethical view of utilitarianism

Question 17

A socially responsible company should take responsibility for the effects its corporate decision making have on:

a) Its shareholders

b) Its employees

c) The community

d) All of the above

Question 18

Which philosopher asserted that humans are entitled to the results of their labor?

a) John Rawls

b) John Locke

c) John Stuart Mill

d) Robert Nozick

Question 19

Which of the following is an accurate statement about capitalism?

a) It is built on the idea of free market and property rights.

b) It encourages government ownership and rewards individuals based on personal effort.

c) It is built on the idea of social ownership and cooperative enterprises.

d) It discourages private ownership.

Question 20

Which of the following occurs in a free market when suppliers begin to overproduce a given product?

a) Consumer demand will decrease.

b) Prices for that given product will remain the same.

c) Consumer demand will remain the same.

d) That given product will lose appeal.

Question 21

According to the narrow view of corporate responsibility, businesses have an obligation to:

a) Maximize profits

b) Help out the poorest members of the community

c) Hire a certain number of employees each year

d) All of the above

Question 22

A company with minimum work quotas may create:

a) A high pressure environment for employees

b) A low pressure environment for employees

c) Unreliable, low-quality products

d) A competitive buyer’s market, but a fair seller’s market

Question 23

The idea of institutionalizing ethics within corporations suggests that businesses:

a) Penalize employees who evaluate the morality of corporate decisions.

b) End their defensiveness in the face of public discussion and criticism.

c) Commit to ethical behavior only internally, not externally.

d) Avoid conducting ethical audits of their organizations policies and practices.

Question 24

Which of the following events in the history of capitalism occurred FIRST?

a) Hans Fugger begins to collect and sell products made by other weavers.

b) Business exchanges are organized by guilds, associations of individuals involved in the same trade.

c) The Great Depression ushers in state welfare capitalism.

d) Industrial capitalism emerges.

Question 25

Which of the following statements does NOT attempt to provide a moral justification of capitalism?

a) People have a natural right to own and oversee their own property.

b) The healthiest and most robust markets are created when people are allowed to pursue and satisfy their own interests.

c) Competition in the market is not always desirable.

d) Individuals should be left alone to accumulate capital by their own labor and not by government distribution or apportionment.

Question 26

Which of the following statements about work ethic is NOT true?

a) Work ethic is the concept that work is valued for its own sake.

b) Work ethic is a value that all individuals innately possess.

c) Work ethic is rooted in the notion that hard work pays off in the end.

d) Work ethic is related to the principles of integrity and responsibility.

Question 27

A privately held company:

a) Is owned by less than three investors.

b) Allows its stocks to be traded among the general public.

c) Does not partner with other companies.

d) Has a small group of investors who own all the outstanding shares of the corporation.

Question 28

Critics of capitalism argue that:

a) Capitalism leads to wealth inequality.

b) Exploitation of the poor by the rich has occurred throughout history.

c) It is sensible to live in a system that provides opportunities for upward social mobility.

d) Monopolies hurt consumers.

Question 29

If a company has ___________, that means the members are financially accountable for the debts of the organization.

a) Government intervention

b) Public ownership

c) Limited liability

d) Moral agency

Question 30

Which of the following principles relates to the notion that the self-interest of individuals in a capitalist market would direct the market, essentially selecting the best products, prices, and suppliers?

a) Individual need

b) The invisible hand

c) Equal share

d) Market theory

quiz 9

Question 1

Which of the following statements is true?

a) Most employers would agree that an employee’s loyalty to their organization is a prima facie obligation.

b) When an employee experiences a conflict of interest, his or her motive is always financial.

c) Moral employees are required to be entirely loyal and completely submissive to their employers.

d) If the contents of a work contract are legal and if the employee really consents to them, then the employee is under an obligation to fulfill the terms of the agreement.

Question 2

Which of the following was an aspect of the studies conducted at the Hawthorne factory of Western Electric Company?

a) Altered roles for junior-level employees

b) Painting the walls and brightening lights

c) A treatment group and a control group

d) A change in managerial staff

Question 3

Which of the following best defines a kickback?

a) A monetary reward for good service that is standard practice in some industries.

b) A payment intended to influence someone to violate his or her official duties.

c) A small token of esteem with a value that is usually less than $25.

d) A percentage payment to a person able to influence or control a source of income.

Question 4

Which of the following statements is false?

a) A conflict of interest can occur when an employee’s personal interests lead them to make decisions that are harmful to their employer’s interests.

b) Moral employees are required to be entirely loyal and completely submissive to their employers.

c) An employee is legally obligated to behave loyally towards their employer and to carry out all lawful instructions.

d) If the contents of a work contract are legal and if the employee really consents to them, then the employee is under an obligation to fulfill the terms of the agreement.

Question 5

Which of the following best defines proprietary data?

a) The buying and selling of stocks or other financial securities on the basis of information that has not yet been made public and is likely to affect the price of the stock.

b) Any formula, pattern, device, or compilation of information which is used in one’s business and which gives someone an opportunity to obtain an advantage over competitors who do not know or use it.

c) Internally generated data that contains specific information regarding the company’s competitive edge.

d) None of the above

Question 6

Which of the following protects a product from being made by anyone without permission?

a) Insider trading

b) Proprietary data

c) A patent

d) A trade secret

Question 7

Allen gave Henry a ________ in order to pass the inspection with fewer penalty fines.

a) Gift

b) Bribe

c) Kickback

d) Tip

Question 8

Which of the following statements is true?

a) Employees owe no loyalty to their employer.

b) No employee is required to ignore immoral or unethical activity.

c) Pointing out immoral or unethical activity comes with no risk.

d) Employees are required to ignore immoral or unethical activity.

Question 9

An organic grocery store asks that, among other things, employees take an online course to learn more about healthy eating, nutrition, and exercise. Which of the following would this course be a part of?

a) A personality test

b) A wellness program

c) A drug test

d) A layoff

Question 10

In order to avoid causing conflict of interests, gifts should meet which of the following conditions?

a) They should not be of significant monetary value.

b) They should not be intended to influence the gift recipient or gain preferential treatment.

c) They should meet any conditions established by law.

d) All of the above

Question 11

Which of the following statements is true?

a) A gift given near the holiday season is more morally suspect.

b) Gift giving is more common in some industries than others.

c) The monetary value of a gift has no effect on whether the gift generates a conflict of interests.

d) None of the above

Question 12

Which of the following must employers be conscious of when administering standard personality tests, drug tests, and other inquiries used to obtain employee information?

a) Privacy

b) Discrimination

c) Gender

d) Property

Question 13

Which of the following statements is true?

a) Whistle-blowing is never a morally justified act.

b) Whistle-blowing is always a morally praiseworthy act.

c) Whistle-blowing can be justified so long as certain conditions are met.

d) Whistle-blowing is neither moral nor immoral.

Question 14

The Sarbanes-Oxley Act:

a) Makes it illegal to report an employer’s wrong doing.

b) Legally protects employers from the accusations of their employees.

c) Makes it illegal not to report an employer’s wrong doing.

d) Legally protects employees who report fraud.

Question 15

Which of the following best defines a gift?

a) A monetary reward for good service that is standard practice in some industries.

b) A payment intended to influence someone to violate his or her official duties.

c) A small token of esteem with a value that is usually less than $25.

d) A percentage payment to a person able to influence or control a source of income.

Question 16

Surveillance in the workplace allows employers to keep track of their employees in what way?

a) While in the office

b) Via their email

c) Via their web history

d) All of the above

Question 17

According to the Myers-Briggs Personality Indicator, ________ tend to think first, and then act or speak later.

a) Introverts

b) Extroverts

c) Feelers

d) Perceivers

Question 18

Polygraph tests are not completely accurate for all of the following reasons EXCEPT:

a) Some people are more comfortable with lying than others.

b) The anxiety caused by being tested may alter some people’s physiological responses.

c) There’s a possibility for false positives.

d) They do not always read physiological responses correctly.

Question 19

When an employee’s interests are likely to interfere with the employee’s ability to exercise proper judgment on behalf of the organization, what exists?

a) A golden opportunity

b) A conflict of interest

c) A balance of power

d) A disaster

Question 20

Some writers deny that employees have any obligation of loyalty to the company, because:

a) Companies are not the kind of things that are properly objects of loyalty.

b) You cannot trust anyone.

c) It’s every man for himself.

d) Companies just aren’t the same any more.

Question 21

A restaurant server receives a _______ for helpful, friendly, and prompt service.

a) Gift

b) Bribe

c) Kickback

d) Tip

Question 22

Eric works for a moving company and hurt his shoulder lifting a heavy piece of furniture last week. Though he’s upset the injury put him out of work for two weeks, he is aware that he __________ when he initially accepted the job.

a) Gave uninformed consent

b) Knew he’d get hurt

c) Assumed some risk

d) Had shoulder problems

Question 23

In order to be morally justified, whistle-blowing must be:

a) Motivated by a desire to expose unnecessary harm, illegal or immoral actions, or conduct counter to the public good.

b) Done after internal channels for dissent have been exhausted.

c) Supported by compelling evidence.

d) All of the above

Question 24

Olivia is the manager of a retail store and has noticed productivity tends to dwindle during the evening and night hours. According to the __________, if Olivia gives her employees more attention and recognition, productivity will likely increase.

a) Friedman theory of productivity

b) Managerial effect

c) Kant theory

d) Hawthorne effect

Question 25

Which of the following made it a crime to steal a trade secret?

a) The Securities and Exchange Commission Act

b) U.S. v. O’Hagan

c) The Economic Espionage Act of 1996

d) The Texas Gulf Sulfur stock scandal

Question 26

Job satisfaction is dependent on all of the following EXCEPT:

a) Job security

b) Competitiveness

c) Compensation

d) Communication between employees and management

Question 27

In determining the morality of giving and receiving gifts in a business situation, which of the following factors is MOST relevant?

a) The purpose of the gift

b) The size of the business

c) Amount of the cash

d) Whether the company is privately held or publicly held

Question 28

Organizations typically consider a gift worth less than __________ to not pose a conflict of interest.

a) $1,000

b) $100

c) $50

d) $25

Question 29

Which of the following is typically a motivation expressed by whistle-blowers?

a) A disinterest in the public interest

b) Loyalty to the company

c) A sense of professional responsibility

d) A sense of self-interest

Question 30

Which of the following best defines whistle-blowing?

a) The informing of the public by an employee of an employer’s past or present illegal or immoral actions.

b) Choosing to act only in ways that are in one’s self-interest.

c) Prioritizing company loyalty above all else.

d) Publically sharing a company’s trade secrets.

quiz 7

Question 1

A test is reliable if:

a) It successfully measures what it is supposed to.

b) A candidate would get similar results if he or she took the test multiple times.

c) It results in discrimination against people who belong to certain demographic groups.

d) It provides no information about the personality of the test taker.

Question 2

When disciplining or discharging an employee with just cause, the burden of proof is on the:

a) Employee

b) Employer

c) Employee handbook

d) There is no burden of proof when an employee is disciplined or discharged with just cause.

Question 3

When screening job applicants, businesses often take which of the following into consideration?

a) Work experience

b) Educational background

c) Personality traits

d) All of the above

Question 4

A test is valid if:

Wrong Answera) It successfully measures what it is supposed to.

b) A candidate would get similar results if he or she took the test multiple times.

c) It results in discrimination against people who belong to certain demographic groups.

d) It provides no information about the personality of the test taker.

Question 5

Fair personnel policies and decisions must be based on criteria that are clear, job related, and:

a) partial toward friends.

b) equally applied.

c) ignore personality.

d) minimize nepotism.

Question 6

Which of the following best defines inbreeding?

a) Privileging or promoting employees based on how long they’ve been on a job or with a company.

b) The practice of promoting exclusively from within the firm.

c) The practice of showing favoritism to relatives and close friends.

d) None of the above

Question 7

The federal government requires that business pay employees:

a) Minimum wage

b) A living wage

c) For sick days

d) There are no federal requirements for wages.

Question 8

Businesses should not discriminate against job applications because of:

Wrong Answera) Employment gaps

b) Work experience

c) Educational background

d) Bona fide occupational qualifications

Question 9

Which of the following is an argument someone might make to highlight the problems that can arise when employees are promoted on the basis of inbreeding?

a) Inbreeding encourages employees to work as hard as possible.

b) Inbreeding can cause managers to ignore more qualified applicants who work outside the firm.

c) Inbreeding encourages employees to behave loyally to the firm.

d) None of the above

Question 10

Employees working under an employment-at-will contract are:

a) Not entitled to any due process protection under the law.

b) Entitled to due process protection under the law.

c) Legally protected from ungrounded termination.

d) None of the above

Question 11

Which of the following statements is false of bona fide occupational qualifications?

a) There are some gendered bona fide occupational qualifications.

Wrong Answerb) There are some racial bona fide occupational qualifications.

c) There are bona fide occupational qualifications for cases of authenticity.

d) There are bona fide occupational qualifications for cases of modesty.

Question 12

Unions employ two kinds of boycotts to enforce their demands. These two kinds of boycotts are:

a) positive and negative.

b) corporate and private.

c) active and passive.

d) primary and secondary.

Question 13

Which of the following best defines due process?

a) States that employees have the right to leave a company at any time and for any reason.

b) Requires that organizations use fair procedures to discipline or discharge employees.

c) Requires that reasons for discipline or discharge deal directly with job performance.

d) States that employers have a right to terminate an employee’s position at any time and for any reason.

Question 14

In the last 20 years, union membership has been:

a) Stagnant

b) Increasing

c) Declining

d) Unmeasured

Question 15

Which of the following can call into question the fairness of promotions?

a) Seniority

b) Inbreeding

c) Nepotism

d) All of the above

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