SEAPORT BUS C110 FINAL QUIZ (2014)

| August 14, 2017

1.
The manager’s fiduciary duty refers to _____.
the
duty of managers to maximize returns to employees
the
legally prescribed duties which make their employment possible
the
moral duty managers have to act as responsible agents to the owners
managers
resisting hostile takeover bids
managers
managing by number
2.
According to the stakeholder theory, _____.
having
gone along with legal duties, the corporation can ignore any other social
obligations
a
corporation’s social responsibilities are limited to staying within the law
only
corporations
should pay attention only to the bottom line
a
socially responsible corporation is likely to consider the impact of its
decision on the shareholders only
all
the stakeholders to a corporate decision deserve some kind of moral
consideration
3.
_____ helps companies embrace the idea that profit and prosperity must go hand
in hand with social justice and environmental stewardship.
Social
contract
Stakeholder
theory
Conscious
capitalism
Virtue
ethics
Deontology
4.
What is legal is not necessarily ethical and what is ethical is not necessarily
legal
True
False
5.
Ethics is the study of what is right and wrong just from an individual’s
personal moral viewpoint
True
False
6.
Contract duties are obligations imposed by law.
True
False
7.
An agreement that is illegal is void.
True
False
8.
A promisor is a person to whom a promise has been made
True
False
9.
A contract need not be in writing to be enforceable.
True
False
10.
Which of the following factors considers whether the contract is yet to be
performed or the obligations have been fully discharged by one or both parties
while classifying contracts?
Completion
Acceptance
Mutuality
Explicitness
Enforceability
11.
A general agent has the authority to act in any way required by the principal’s
business
True
False
12.
Oral agencies are not legally binding unless reduced to writing.
True
False
13.
A(n) _____ is defined as a person who acts in the name of and on behalf of another,
having been given and assumed some degree of authority to do so.
Grantor.
Insured
Agent
Testator
Tenant
14.
In the legal relationship known as “agency”:

the
agent cannot have any personal property interest in the principal’s business.
the
principal must authorize all subagents appointed by an agent.
a
general agent has the authority to act in any way required by the principal’s
business.
the
principal is primarily liable for all actions undertaken by agents and
subagents.
a
general agent must be appointed for business purposes, while a special agent
can be appointed for personal purposes.
15.
An agent who accepts a bribe to purchase goods for a principal only from a
seller who is a personal friend breaches his _____ duty by taking the money,
since it is the agent’s duty to work only for the best interests of the
principal
Statutory
Gratuitous
Fiduciary
Expressed
Apparent
16.
In property law, a(n) _____ is an interest in real property, ranging from
absolute dominion and control to bare possession.

Fixture
Chattel
Estate
Attachment
Lien
17.
A(n) _____ is an agreement regarding the use of land that “runs with the
land”.

dominant
tenement
restrictive
covenant
servient
tenement
easement
appurtenant
eminent
domain
18.
A property is categorized into ‘commercial’ and ‘residential’ units, so that a
commercial building cannot be built in a residential neighborhood and vice
versa without a change in the ______ ordinances
Easement
inter
vivos
zoning
restrictive
covenant
accession
19.
Which of the following acts is also known as the Superfund?

Toxic
Substances Control Act
Comprehensive
Environment Response, Compensation, and Liability Act
Environment
Protection Agency
Federal
Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act
Noise
Regulation Act
20.
An easement is an estate whereas a license is personal to the grantee and is
not assignable
True
False
21.
Tangible property is something without physical reality that entitles the owner
to certain benefits.
True
False
22.
A steamroller is an example of a tangible property
True
False
23.
The sale of personal property, but not real property, is governed by Article 2
of the Uniform Commercial Code
True
False
24.
A fixture is an object that was once personal property but that has become so
affixed to land or structures that it is considered legally a part of the real
property
True
False
25.
Which of the following is an example of an intangible property?
A
trademark
A
popsicle stand
A
hairdryer
A
steamroller
A
phone
26.
The agreement between the owner of a real property and a real estate broker is
known as the listing agreement
True
False
27.
Community property refers to:
the
space in a condominium ownership arrangement that all purchasers own as tenants
in common.
the
shares in a cooperative building that are owned by tenants.
property
acquired while a husband and wife are married to each other, in which each has
undivided interest.
property
in which joint tenants have unity of possession but not title.
the
shares of the many owners in a time-share type of property.
28.
_____ is a method by which a third party holds a document or money or both
until specified conditions have been met.

Easement
A
quitclaim deed
enancy
in common
Escrow
A
condominium
29.
Property acquired by a spouse by gift or inheritance or owned before the
marriage is known as separate property.
True
False
30.
The adverse possessor must use the land continuously, not intermittently.
True
False
31.
In case of a leasehold estate, the landlord’s interest in the property during
the tenant’s possession is a reversionary interest.
True
False
32.
Leases can be created orally, unless the term of the lease exceeds the period
specified by the Statute of Frauds
True
False
33.
When a landlord breaches any of his duties, the tenant may seek damages either
after termination or as an alternative to termination.
True
False
34.
In an assignment, the tenant transfers all interest in the premises and all
obligations.
True
False
35.
As a general rule, when injury occurs on premises rented to a tenant, the
landlord is liable.
True
False
36.
Title I of the Consumer Credit Protection Act is popularly known as the Truth
in Lending Act.
True
False
37.
The Fair Credit and Charge Card Disclosure Act requires that credit card
issuers disclose the annual percentage rate, annual fees, grace period, and
other information on credit card applications
True
False
38.
Under the Fair Credit Reporting Act, an applicant denied credit has the right
to be told the name and address of the credit bureau that prepared the report
on which the denial was based.
True
False
39.
Garnishment, wage assignment, and confession of judgment are means of debt
recovery.

True
False
40.
The _____ is the total of all money paid for credit.
prime
rate
floor
limit
finance
charge
balloon
payment
floating
rate
41.
A lien is security obtained through operation of law.
True
False
42.
A person who owes money to another is known as an obligor.
True
False
43.
Attachment is the process by which a security interest becomes enforceable
against the debtor with respect to the collateral.
True
False
44.
A lien creditor is a creditor whose claim is based on operation of law as
opposed to a creditor whose claim is based on agreement.
True
False
45.
A person who owes money or a duty of performance to another is known as a(n):
obligor.
creditor.
pledger.
bailer.
debtor.
46.
A mortgage is a security in which the collateral is a piece of land.
True
False
47.
The party who holds a mortgage is known as the mortgagor.
True
False
48.
A mortgage between parties is invalid if it is not recorded.
True
False
49.
Recording a lien against real estate does not give the lienor an automatic
right to the property if the debt remains unpaid.
True
False
50.
Judicial sale and power of sale are the two types of sale used in:
foreclosure.
attachment.
perfection.
exoneration.
subrogation.

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